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Answer:

-3

Step-by-step explanation:

hm this is a  little tricky!

so on a number line, -3 will be behind -2 because it is less than the two since it is negative. If we have 4/5 and 1/5 we will need to think what comes between them.

5/5 and 0/5  

which means that -3 comes between them both

First and foremost, notice that because the two integers are negative,  [tex]- 2\frac{4}{5}[/tex] is greater than the other number [tex]-3 \frac{1}{5}[/tex] .  As just a result, a number less than  [tex]- 2\frac{4}{5}= -\frac{14}{5}[/tex] and greater than [tex]- 3 \frac{1}{5}= -\frac{16}{5}[/tex]  means a value between such two integers.

  • There could be an infinite amount of integers between any two such values.
  • If we have two numbers a and b, then an integer [tex]\frac{ma+nb}{m + n}[/tex]  where m and n are any two positive numbers exists between a and b, then we'll have a unlimited number of such number by picking a variety of m and n.
  • Let us choose, [tex]m = 1 \ \ and\ \ n = 1[/tex] this number is [tex]\frac{a+b}{2}.[/tex] That's what we [tex]a= -\frac{14}{5}\ \ and\ \ b = -\frac{16}{5}[/tex] currently possess[tex]= \frac{-\frac{14}{5} -\frac{16}{5}}{2} =-\frac{30}{5} \times \frac{1}{2} = -\frac{15}{5}=-3[/tex] .
  • Since [tex]\frac{ma+nb}{m + n}[/tex] all numbers m, n, a, and b are rational numbers, [tex]\frac{ma+nb}{m + n}[/tex] would only return rational numbers between a and b.
  • In reality, there might be infinite irrational numbers between a and b which is [tex](a^m. b^n)^{\frac{1}{m+n}}[/tex].

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brainly.com/question/6782293