Answer:
B. 1/56
Explanation:
There are 8 different marbles. In the first draw, you have a one out of 8 chance of getting the red. In the second draw, there are 7 marbles remaining, so a one out of 7 chance of drawing a white marble. To find the total probability of drawing the red and then white marble, we multiply the probabilities if each draw.
(1/8)*(1/7)=1/56
This question is based on the probability. Therefore, the correct option is B, [tex]\dfrac{1}{56}[/tex] is the probability that the red marble is drawn first and the white marble is drawn second.
Given:
There are 8 marbles in a bag. Each marble is a different color. The colors are: red, orange, yellow, green, blue, purple, black, and white. Two marbles are randomly drawn from the bag without replacement.
We need to determined the probability that the red marble is drawn first and the white marble is drawn second.
According to the question,
It is given that, there are 8 different marbles. In the first draw, you have a one out of 8 chance of getting the red is [tex]\dfrac{1}{8}[/tex].
In the second draw, there are 7 marbles remaining, so a one out of 7 chance of drawing a white marble i.e. [tex]\dfrac{1}{7}[/tex].
Now, calculating the total probability of drawing the red and then white marble, we multiply the probabilities if each draw.
⇒ [tex]\dfrac{1}{8} \times \dfrac{1}{7} = \dfrac{1}{56}[/tex]
Therefore, the correct option is B, [tex]\dfrac{1}{56}[/tex] is the probability that the red marble is drawn first and the white marble is drawn second.
For more details, prefer his link;
https://brainly.com/question/23887720
