This problem is inspired by a study of the "gender gap" in earnings in top corporate jobs [Bertrand and Hallock (2001)]. The study compares total compensation among top executives in a large set of U.S. public corporations in the 1990s. (Each year these publicly traded corporations must report total compensation levels for their top five executives.)a. Let Female be an indicator variable that is equal to 1 for females and 0 for males. A regression of the logarithm of earnings onto Female yields: ln(Earnings) = 6.48 - 0.44 Female, SER = 2.65. (0.01) (0.05) i. The estimated coefficient on Female is - 0.44. Explain what this value means. ii. The SER is 2.65. Explain what this value means. iii. Does this regression suggest that female top executives earn less than top male executives? Explain.iv. Does this regression suggest that there is gender discrimination? Explain.

Question

contestada

Respuesta :

codiepienagoya codiepienagoya · Answer 1 · 2021-01-14T10:50:54+01:00

Answer:

Following are the solution to this question:

Explanation:

In point 1:

The average, women's income is 44% much fewer men's, but on the other hand, and the (Transactions ) For average, 0.44 is lower on average than men's.

In point 2:

The error term is 2.65 default (measured in log points).

In point 3:

The answer is "Yes".

In point 4:

The answer is "No".

Answer Link