contestada

The y-intercept of f(x) has the same value as the
The function f1(x) has a range including all values
greater than or equal to 0; therefore, the
does also.

The yintercept of fx has the same value as the The function f1x has a range including all values greater than or equal to 0 therefore the does also class=

Respuesta :

Answer:

The y-intercept of f(x) has the same value as the -x-intercept of f inverse-

The function f^1 (x) has a range including all values greater than or equal to 0; therefore, the -domain of f- does also

Step-by-step explanation:

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