Answer:
The answer is "[tex]1\frac{1}{2}[/tex]"
Step-by-step explanation:
Please find the graph file of the question in the attachment.
Its first step is the lightest and heaviest evil. [tex]4 \frac{1}{4}[/tex] is the lightest bag, and [tex]5 \frac34[/tex] is the heaviest bag. To remove it now, it is not permissible to remove it as a mixed fraction, therefore convert each fraction into an improper fraction by multiplying the whole integer to the numerator, then adding a numerator to this amount, multiplied by the numerator. Follow those steps to find out [tex]4 \frac{1}{4}[/tex] is the wrong part.
[tex](4\times 4+1=17) \ so\ 4\frac14=\frac{17}{4}.[/tex] The process is the same for [tex]5 \frac34 (5\times 4+3=23) \ so \ 5 \frac34= \frac{23}{4}.[/tex]
You now deduce the numerator but just not the negative, to deduct both. You subtract, as the question is raised far as[tex]\frac{23}{4}-\frac{17}{4} =\frac{6}{4}[/tex] is involved. The last stage is that this is transformed into blended families, dividing its count by the denominator, 6 divided by 4 is identical to 1.5. 1 is a full amount so you don't modify it, but you do need to change the 5 decimals to [tex]1.5=1 \frac{5}{10}[/tex] and the last step is [tex]1\frac{1}{2}[/tex]to reduce.