Yes, because the ratio of alleles is not following the Mendelian ratio.
According to Mendelian genetics, if there is a gene F at any locus then the possible phenotypes it can produce will be Ff, ff, and Ff in the ratio of 1:2:1, respectively. Out of all three FF and ff will be homozygous whereas Xx genotype will be heterozygous and if the phenotype of Ff resembles that of FF then it will be confirmed that F is dominant over f.
According to the given condition, the dominant trait (F) is increasing in the population and the recessive one is reducing. Thus, individuals with FF will be highest (60%), followed by Ff (30%). ff proportion in the population is lowest (10%). This makes the ratio as 6:3:1 which proves the evolution of the population with a high percentage of the dominant allele.
Note: The given question is incomplete but your expected question probably be like this, “Expected question: You have collected data on the observed genotype frequencies of the next generation. they are 60% FF, 30% Ff, and 10% ff. Based on these observations and your expectations, is this trait currently evolving in this population? Why or why not?”
Learn more about Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium here,
brainly.com/question/16823644
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