A 38-year-old male is upset about his low sperm count and visits a "practitioner" who commonly advertises his miracle cures of sterility. The practitioner is a quack who treats conditions of low sperm count with megadoses of testosterone. The patient experiences a huge surge in libido. Would this treatment result in a higher or lower sperm count, and why?
Lower, because Testo causes a negative feedback to the hypothalamus (decreasing GnRH release) and to the anterior pituitary (decreasing FSH), both if which lead to a decreased level of ASH --> decreased sperm (spermatozia) maturation.
