Respuesta :
because g(x) passes from 1,0 to 1,4, we can say that it has a slope of 0. f(x) has a slope of 2.
Answer:
The slope of the function f(x) is 2 and the slope of g(x) is ∞. The slope of g(x) is greater than slope of f(x).
Step-by-step explanation:
The given function is
[tex]f(x)=2x+3[/tex] .... (1)
The slope intercept form of a line is
[tex]y=mx+b[/tex] .... (2)
Where, m is slope and b is y-intercept.
From (1) and (2), we get
[tex]m=2,b=3[/tex]
It means slope of the function f(x) is 2 and y-intercept is 3.
The function g(x) going through 1 on the x axis and (1, 4). It means it passes through the point (1,0) and (1,4).
The slope of g(x) is
[tex]m=\frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}[/tex]
[tex]m=\frac{4-0}{1-1}[/tex]
[tex]m=\infty[/tex]
The slope of g(x) is ∞.
Therefore the slope of g(x) is greater than slope of f(x).