Respuesta :

because g(x) passes from 1,0 to 1,4, we can say that it has a slope of 0. f(x) has a slope of 2. 

Answer:

The slope of the function f(x) is 2 and the slope of g(x) is ∞. The slope of g(x) is greater than slope of f(x).

Step-by-step explanation:

The given function is

[tex]f(x)=2x+3[/tex]                  .... (1)

The slope intercept form of a line is

[tex]y=mx+b[/tex]                  .... (2)

Where, m is slope and b is y-intercept.

From (1) and (2), we get

[tex]m=2,b=3[/tex]

It means slope of the function f(x) is 2 and y-intercept is 3.

The function g(x) going through 1 on the x axis and (1, 4). It means it passes through the point (1,0) and (1,4).

The slope of g(x) is

[tex]m=\frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}[/tex]

[tex]m=\frac{4-0}{1-1}[/tex]

[tex]m=\infty[/tex]

The slope of g(x) is ∞.

Therefore the slope of g(x) is greater than slope of f(x).